$2/5 table, about 1800 effective. I would describe villain as fairly straightforward, sticky with draws and any top pairs, and when he raises he usually has a large piece.
Hero straddles on the button for $10, MP and hi-jack limp. Hero holds A♣
and raises to $60. MP folds, hi-jack calls.
Villain leads for $50. I call. I probably miss a standard raise here, but I think his limp calling range consists of a lot of Q (KQ, QJ, QT...) as well as some flush draws (Ax spades, JT spades). I didn't want to blow him off a weak queen and just called. He probably still calls a raise to $150 with most queens just mentioned though, and so this is a mistake by me probably.
Villain checks, I bet $120 into $220. Same logic as above, wanting to keep a weaker queen around and some flush draws (I don't block nut flush luckily). This villain almost never has AQ as a limp, and I block that anyway.
Villain check raises to $420. His lead flop and xr turn is not consistent with his typical betting line for sets (he almost ALWAYS slow plays a set, and wouldn't lead flop at all with, e.g., 22). This does seem like 2 pair (QT or T8 both possible?), but perhaps he could be holding a flush draw or pair that picks a gutshot (AT spades, QJ/Q9, JT, etc.). I call.
Pot is about 1,000 going into river, and villain has about 1,300 behind.
Villain checks. I suppose I acted too quickly, because after typing this hand out, he should have a missed draw with a mediocre hand (which he will fold), or a fairly strong hand in the form of 2-pair. I don't think his weak queen holdings check-raise the turn...
My thought process was I want to get called by all his single pair queens, and so I bet only $350 trying to target that range.
How bad is this sizing and thought process? How large would you bet here? Do you ever consider sizing for a raise-fold (only losing to a weird KJ or a sneaky J9)?
Villain snap called with QTo