1/3 at local casino in Pittsburgh. Hero is mid 20's male with $400. Villain 1 is early 30's black guy, I have only been at table for a few hands, but he has been involved in 4/4 hands and has over $2k. Villain 2 seems like a mid 30's male nit with around $1,500. Other than these few hands we have no previous history. Villain 2 opens UTG for 12, hero calls in middle with 88, Villain 1 raises to 30 OTB, Villain 2 thinks for a minute and calls, Hero calls. Flop 8 J Q rainbow. Villain 2 checks, Hero bets 60, Villain 1 quickly calls, Villain 2 raises to 170, Hero flats (not wanting to raise and have Villain 1 fold an overpair), Villian 1 thinks for a while and ships all in?! Villian 2 folds, Hero? This is such a weird spot, and I'm not sure if villain 1 is bad enough to overplay aces or kings, but I don't think I have ever seen someone at this level shovel in 500bbs on a flop without the stone nuts. It just seems like QQ or JJ are a little more likely than 910 because of preflop action, but after flop shove he has to have the nuts right? To make this call profitable I figured that he has to have 910 around 85% of the time or more. What do you do here?