2/5 game in which a big tournament is going on so almost all of the tables are full for the tournament. My current table is 6 handed and the particular villians in the hand are 1-2 players because the 1-2 list is over 20 long.
After a "heater" in which I got 3-4 good starting hands in which I raised and either no one called the raise or folded to my Cbet I decided to have fun and continue to raise each of the next 6 hands until someone played back at me. The 2 villians who were on my right continued to limp in knowing I would raise and then would immediately fold. It was quite comical.
Anyways, this hand in question I was in the BB.
Vilian 1($300): He is UTG and limps
Vilian 2 ($400): He is in SB and limps
Hero ($2000): Is in BB and decides for some reason to not raise with 68 offsuit.
Flop: 8d 6d 2h ($15)
Hero leads $20 ( Before the "heater" anytime there was a limped pot and I flopped anything at all I would donk lead and take the pot down, usually a horrible play but this was an easy game :)
V1 calls the 20
V2 min check raises to 40
Hero decides to reraise to 110
V1 cold calls the raise and V2 ships it in for roughly 300 on top.
My plan was to raise fold because I assumed he would only re-raise me with a set. It is unlikely he has a set of 6 or 8 due to combos but 2's are def in his range. Even if we are 90% sure in this particular instance he has a set do we still call? He could possibly have anything from lower 2 pair to maybe even overpair he planned on check raising preflop with.
Against a normal lineup is this a call or a fold since there are many more draws and weaker two pairs in other peoples ranges?
I ended up calling and I will give the final details of the hand later but I just wanted to know what you guys think.